1. What enclaves are supported by the t2c2 heavy?

(annex a slide 25) NIPR/SIPR/Coalition

2. On what band or bands is the t2c2 heavy capable of operating on?

All of the above

3. Stepping on the coaxial cables cause which of the following?

Damage

4. Which of the following is a benefit of satellite communications?

Networks available quickly across wide areas

5. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit is more than 22,000 miles above earth?

True

6. Which of the following is NOT an example of electromagnetic interference?

Rain fade

7. When pointing t2c2 heavy while in the northern hemisphere, where are satellites in GEO orbit found?

In the southern sky

8. What divides the radome into two distinct chambers?

Reflector

9. Which pressure is indicated by DP pressure LED on the automatic inflation unit?

Differential pressure

10. Which MODEM does the t2c2 heavy utilize?

MPM-2000

11. Which of the following must be monitored during inflation?

Pressure tubes and AlU

12. KG-175D must have which of the following inserted?

Valid CIK

13. What is the function of the KG-175D?

To secure data communications between two points

14. Which of the following connection types are supported by PuTTY?

SSH

15. An advantage to going to the TM when in need of maintenance guidance is which of the following?

All of the above

16. Cleaning of the radome can be accomplished by:

Scrubbing radome with soap/water using a sponge or soft cloth

17. What is the importance of drying the antenna?

Prevent mold/mildew build-up

18. What does the acronym t2c2 stand for?

Transportable Tactical Command Communication

19. What does the acronym AUI stand for?

Automatic Inflation Unit

20. What colors are the correlating air tubes that attach to the AUI?

Yellow and green

1. What network uses the OTADD function?

XDR

2. What is accomplished when tearing down an MDR PTP call is initiated?

The operator tears down a PTP call that is currently active

3. When would supplementary grounding be required?

During desert climate

4. Which terminal control enables the operator at the ROU or the LOD to terminate power to equipment in only operating state?

Power down

5. Where can the current signal level of a specific beam be viewed?

Signal to noise status screen

6. What does an LDR unplanned handover permit the operator to accomplish?

The operator can request an unplanned handover of a beam-managed LDR network to another beam-managed terminal

7. What devices can be used to perform an XDR network member operator?

LDR and ROU

8. What information is entered on the screen when performing an XDR privileged tear down?

The XDR service ID

9. When loading GPS keys, which keys should be loaded first?

10. What will appear on the screen on the "states" column after an XDR PTP call has been successfully set-up?

ACT

11. What action is the operator performing if the key enter marks code?

Load position

12. When loading time, what is the default time accuracy?

10

13. When loading time, what devices can be utilized?

LOD and ROU

14. How many D53-2 channels can be viewed on the D53 form port status?

15. What menu enables the operator to request updated satellite information for selected satellite?

Satellite ephemeris updated

16. How many beam parameter sets can you choose from the MDR broadcast view option screen?

4 and for XDR 5

17. What must occur prior to performing a LDR/MDR/XDR network member function?

The network must be set up on the satellite

18. What is the data rate range for XDR communication using the SMART-T?

75bps - 8192 kbsi

19. In the event of power source interruption, which component of the SMART-T terminal will not receive backup power?

DDT

20. What is the signal log for Heavy rain wet?

FOI

21. Before any member can join an LDR broader network, what must happen first?

Setup the net

22. What occurs when the operator changes the C3 mode?

It determines the robustness of the C3 message transmitted

23. What technique does the Milstar/AEHF waveform utilize to force the enemy to spread their jamming signal over a wide bandwidth?

Frequency/time hopping

24. Which LDR beam provides 37 individual beam positions?

37 agile

25. What action should you take if the generator engine floods during startup?

Wait approx two minutes, then start the engine

26. Which of the following listed screen orders would you use to navigate to the group port status screen?

(C) Comn - communication service - active comn summary

27. Satellite acquisition involves detection and tracking of the received satellite signal in what three areas?

Time, frequency and space

28. What does the electronic self-leveling feature physically do to the terminal?

There is no physical movement of any part

29. What are the two phases of startup testing?

TCP initialization and terminal startup

30. Which of the following choices defines an uplink signal?

Any signal sent

31. Your SMART-T has experienced antenna heater failure, you're performing direct support PDU capacitor relay fault isolation, what continuity reading on A1 to A2 and K1 to K2 relay pins?

Infinity

32. What is the data range for MDR communications using the SMART-T?

4.8 - 15.44 kbps

33. What is the nominal signal strength of MDR spot beam D on satellite?

54 dB

34. Where is the antenna thermal switch (sensor) located?

Main reflector

35. Deploying the antenna can be performed using L1D?

False, LID is used for calls

36. While operating the terminal, you receive a fault message?

Summary of XMTR voltages regulator faults

37. Where does the operator attach the CRK in order to initialize the variable performance chipset during MDR/XDR operations?

Attached to the front of the TRANSEC module

38. What is the difference between the XDR PTP caller and the XDR PTP called?

The caller sets up the PTP call

39. Which of the following is required as part of the antenna azimuth resolver R&R procedure?

Antenna alignment

40. What should be done when replacing the middle binding plate during the PDU batteries Bt1 and Bt2 replacement?

Ensure the beveled edges are facing upward

41. Using the below fault log, which fault should you troubleshoot first?

None, continue operations

42. What should be done to help ensure a safer expansion of an OTADD?

The operator should choose "yes" to delete XDR Data Sets prior to expanding OTADD set

43. Why should the operator avoid overuse of XDR order-wire messages?

It will impact system performance

44. What will happen to the terminal after the first minute if only one power source is connected and it fails?

The PDU will not have any backup power and the SMART-T will shut down

45. What is the SMART-T default mode of operation?

Automatic mode

46. What is accomplished when the caller initiates a "teardown MDR PTP call"?

The operator tears down a PTP call that is currently active

47. What is used during troubleshooting to detect and isolate failed LRUs?

Online and offline built-in tests (BIT) functions

48. Which of the following is always required when an alert message is received?

The operator must acknowledge receipt of the message

49. You are located on a remote mountain and have lost terminal communications. You begin performing fault isolation and find that ice has formed on all antenna elements?

Power sources to power up 1 power source to de-ice

50. How many beam parameter sets can you choose from the XDR network CC view options screen?

5

51. Which online BIT would you perform to troubleshoot a faulty XDR port?

MDR/XDR loop back test

52. What action does the caller take to activate an XDR PTP call?

The operator selects "setup PTP call" on the XDR PTP

53. What action is the operator performing if they enter the M6HS code?

Load position

54. What size combination wrench is used to remove the two hex head screws, flat washers, and lock washers from the middle ratchet mounting bracket?

7/16 inch

55. What is the minimum interval you are required to inspect the generator lift device?

Yearly

56. What conditions must be met in order to establish an LDR network invite?

Inviting a network member must be performed on an existing active network

57. When removing the UIU transient protection modules, where would you find a radioactive hazard?

The spark gaps located inside the module

58. What device can be used to perform an LDR unplanned handover?

All three devices (LID/LOD/ROU)

59. What is affected by changing the C2 robustness on the LDR C2 robustness change screen?

The terminal logon beam

60. If the transmitter circuit breaker does not remain on when system power is applied, what is your corrective maintenance action according to the appropriate fault isolation chart?

Remove and replace transmitter

61. What information is entered on the screen when performing an XDR privileged tear down?

XDR service ID

62. What will appear on the screen on the status column after an XDR PTP call has been successfully set up?

Active

63. Can you deploy the antenna using LID?

No

64. What is the most likely LRU?

XMTR - Transmitter (code)

65. While conducting operator PMCS, the humidity indicator is pink. What must be done?

Purge moisture out of waveguide

66. What is the most likely lowest LRU?

LDR baseband CCA

67. What is the most likely LRU?

TRU rubidium

68. How many mandatory replacement parts are there when replacing the RHF waveguide?

2 O-rings, one on each end of the waveguide

69. What cable interfaces TRU to transceiver?

AZW4, AZW4, AZW6 (fold out F01)

70. Where is the antenna thermal switch located and what item number is the thermal switch in the receive replace figure?

Back of main reflector, item (5) / TM23-3-103

71. If power is applied and the DOT breaker will not stay on, what is the most likely LRU?

Transmitter

72. What is the dB loss for deploying near power lines?

2-5 dB DL, 5-10

73. What offline test would you run to test DT6-1 port?

MDR/XDR loopback test

74. What is the maximum sustained wind speed that you can operate the SMART-T during a dust/sand storm?

40 mph

gonzo DWIRRRE martin